Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
In "I hate the rain" writing exercise, it is "Ver la televisión", so why isn't it also "Escucho (a?) la música"? It says the correct answer is "Escucho música"
Hi,
I'm just wondering why didn't you group pedir with competiir/servir into one lesson. Their semi regular pattern with changes in the 3rd person only appear to be identical, and it would streamline the process.
"if you want a sweetie, eat your soup". lol, to me, sweetie is sweetheart, or some other affectionate term. Sweet = caramelo.
Hola Inma,
"haciendo la vida más fácil al usuario" and "costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares".
I wonder if it would be wrong to say haciéndole la vida más fácil al usuario and les costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares, instead.
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
I choose both correct answers and also trabajas. What was it incorrect/
One of my lesson tests on Poder in the subjunctive asks,
No dudo que vosotras ________ correr tan rápido como ellos.I have no doubt you can run as fast as them.(HINT: Conjugate "poder" in El Presente Subjuntivo.)
But why would you use the subjunctive here? No dudo, I have no doubt, is an expression of certainty. Everywhere else that I have learned (my college course, spanishdict translation and google translation all use the indicative for No hay duda que..., and I figure this ought to be similar.
Oops. The webpage cut out part of my response. Right after I wrote
Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;
and here I quoted from the lesson:
.."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.
That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?
The remainder of my comment got posted correctly. Hope that my points are more clear now.
From what I understand, statements of emotion almost always trigger the subjunctive. Are there exceptions for past events with cuando? "I was happy that he came" gives imperfect subjunctive whereas "I was happy when he came" gives preterite.
If this is a rule, is it more general than cuando?
Can dar be translated daría in the conditional? I have another source that says daría. Wondering if that is a Spain Spanish vs. South American Spanish?
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