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La oracion: "que los compra acto seguido por internet" seems rather cumbersome. Is that the "Spanish" way of making such a statement? Why couldn't the same meaning be expressed as: "comprará los por internet".
1st table of examples. Why do you use 'tocara' in the third sentence when referring to 'they'? Should it not be 'tocaran'?
I suggest another song suitable for practicing: Me gustas tu by Manu chao.
I was wondering what this sentence would be in LatAm:Juan y tú _tenéis_______ los ojos verdes.Juan and you have green eyes.HINT: Conjugate "tener" in El PresenteWould it be: "tienen" for the plural use of "you all"
Thank you. Nicole
I was wondering which lesson you referred to below in your reply to Mags (I did a search for Poder but there are tons of references).
"We will to expand on this in the lesson and compare with how the modal verb poder is used - possibly in another lesson."
in the exercise at: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/314/481235?response=57969&page=8
sentence: My mother uses her mobile phone to make calls and send texts
Spanish: Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes.
The exercise says: "and", but the translation is: "o"
i.e.: and send texts.
Kwizbot: o enviar mensajes.
You: y enviar texto
Why is the translation "o" 9meaning "or" 0 instead of "y" meaning and as per the text?
Is there an error here, if so what lesson would answer this?
Thank you, Nicole
" it is necessary to repeat the direct object with another pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence."
If we are referring to the direct object, don't we have to use the direct obj pronouns? That also appears to be what happens in the examples.
Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?
In what context can we use them both? E.g can I say hay/hace una tormenta? Or ... Hay/hace mucho frío?