Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello,

Still a bit confused on passive SE, and have a couple questions:  (1) Do "no fault", "accidental" and "passive" SE all refer to the same thing?  And (2) Would the correct Spanish translation for "Yesterday I fixed his computer, and he has already broken it" be "Ayer le arreglé la computadora (el ordenador) y ya se lo/le ha roto”.   If correct, should I use “lo” (for “it”, the computer) or “le” as indirect object for “to him” (?).  Thank you for your input and clarification.

The lesson states the following: 

Cierto can also mean "verdadero/seguro" (true/truthful/sure/reliable). In this case, used with a noun, the adjective cierto is placed after the noun. For example:

I noticed a few mistakes here in this lesson. In some areas, for the "tu", "ellas/ellos", and "nosotros/nosotras" forms of "acaber" there are double "ba" syllables. For example, there's "acababas" instead of "acabas", "acababan" instead of "acaban", and "acababamos" instead of "acabamos". I've double checked elsewhere to verify the correct spellings of these forms and nowhere else did I find the double "ba" syllables.

One of the test questions was about the word order for this phrase and the following is considered incorrect: Por favor Marta, les trae unas copas de vino. Based on this lesson, I thought that the indirect object pronoun (les) could be placed before or after the imperative (i.e. traéles or les trae). Can you please explain the difference?