Spanish language Q&A Forum

You give:- Ha venido quejandose hasta hoy = He's been complaining until today.    Then:- Sospecho que desde aquel dia viene ocultamdome...- he's been hiding...

Same tense in English but different in Spanish.  Why, please?

Hi, thanks for your help. What does “sin un duro” mean?

Shirley.

Hi!

So in another Q&A, a commenter said "Ahora lo tengo", expressing that now they "understand it" or they "got it". Does that work in Spanish? I haven't found a lot about that on translation websites.

Thank you!

Hello Inma, I don't think you understood my question earlier.  

I was wondering why there isn't the "personal a" before each name in the example. There is only one a in the example with 2 names. Why isn't there 2 personal a, before each name? In all your examples, the sentences only have one person in each of your examples. I know I've seen before an A before each person/pet when there are 2 or more in a sentence.

Why is it "a Paula y Cristina" and not "a Paula y a Cristina" ?

When to use definite articles. "No tenemos cerdos" (no article), but "Los cerdos son adorables" (article).

What's the difference?

Could we also use “un poco de” and “unos pocos” in this manner?  Thanks.

Like ‘como uvas’ , can we say ‘yo como uvas’ too, and why is there no ‘I’?

Yo habría ido a la entrevista si ________ un salario más decente.

I put "me hubieran ofrecido", but apparently that was wrong and "me" is not needed 

Why?