Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have understood that in Spain, the -se conjugation was used more in writing and formal situations, and -ra was more conversational. Is that not correct?

Hola Inma, I have been trying to work out why both direct and indirect objects are present here. 

I can't find a reference for a pronominal form of pensar, but on doing the exercise a second time, I noticed that the lesson for the se aspectual was listed as being relevant. Poder isn't given as one of the verbs that typically can take this construction, but does this explain why the reflexive pronoun is being used here, making the verb poder more "intense / complete" as explained in the example of "irse" in the lesson; .... or is there another explanation altogether. Espero que puedas ayudarme. Saludos. John

Hi. There is an exact same question in the quiz as there is in this lesson. When I put the correct answer from this lesson, it was marked as wrong. 

This lesson has no explanation as to when and why to use this tense . 

The lesson on pluscamperfecto is also poor.  

As a result I am frustrated. 

Examples alone are not sufficient. 

Hi

Am I being dumb?

Julie

In this lesson, you have a note near the bottom saying literal translations from English to Spanish don't always work and to not say: "No puedo esperar a..." (I can't wait to...). I notice Shawn offered an option to say “no ver la hora de…”. But I haven’t found other standard or colloquial ways to say, in Spanish, “I can’t wait to…”. Can you help with that? Thanks!

The "this may be closer to latin amercian spanish" warning came up in this exercise, for a part of the text given as a hint!

"A las cuatro, tengo entrenamiento de fútbol."

This is not about one of the examples here, but a question in the quiz:

"Me encanta la cocina francesa, ya sea lo salado o lo dulce."

I would have expected "la salada o la dulce" because I thought it would refer back to la cocina. Why is this change in gender?

How do you do the upside down question mark?