Imperative Vs. SubjunctiveI have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
There is an error above.
In this example, "No me gusta nada ir de compras" why the preposition DE after the word NADA was omitted?
I have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Hola,
Why is the personal 'a' not used in 'conocemos gente'? Would 'conocemos a la gente' be an acceptable answer here?
Thanks,
Benhur
Hola Inma,
These constructions have always confounded me and I have learned to accept them without being able to understand the "rationale."
Thank you very much for such a clear explanation. Saludos. John
The instructions say to use "indefinido" but the indicitive mood examples use imperfecto. Also, the question asked on the quiz only has imperfecto and futuro simple as options. I went with imperfecto and it was marked correct.
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If the main clause uses a tense that implies a past action, for example El Pretérito Indefinido or El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto, then the por si/por si acaso clause uses a past tense.
Le di el dinero que le debía por si acaso se me olvidaba después.I gave him the money I owed him just in case I forgot later.Nos pusimos las botas de agua por si el camino estaba muy enfangado.We put our wellies [US: rain boots] on in case the path was very muddy.After reading the recommended lesson at Spanish verbs Llevar vs Llevarse (pronominal verbs) [Lesson 9495; then look at: 'Getting along with people'] I am puzzled as to why the pronominal form of llevar was not permitted here: namely "Nos llevamos juntos tanto tiempo".
Podemos cambiar que por la preposición para? No hay alimentos para comer?
En la prueba de la lección es escrito:
"Vivo en un séptimo piso,"
¿Por qué no es "el séptimo"?
Hi,
I was wondering why this sentence uses the indicativo in the si-clause:
"me dijo que si la regaba y crecía como una planta, tendría un perro"
Isn't the mom seeing this condition as something not at all likely to happen? Does not the use of the conditional in the main clause also indicate that it is less likely and therefore require the subjunctivo?
Thanks!
Deborah
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