Spanish language Q&A Forum

What's the difference if I use 'todos los correos' instead in the first example?

I understand it grammatically or literately. What I am trying to figure out is what the semantics is. The sentence seems breaking the semantic chain of the text. What is the author trying to tell us?

Do I need to use sino que when any conjugated verb follows, or only when the conjugated verb is different from the conjugated verb in the first clause? If the verbs are the same (vas a +infinitive) which is correct?

There is a note at the top of this lesson informing me that it is a Europe focused lesson, (whereas my focus is Latin America). 

I learned my Spanish from a combination of university classes and living in Guatemala, so I chose the Latin American option. (However, several members of my family have learned Peninsular Spanish.) Could you explain how this lesson would be different for Latin American Spanish? 

The use of antes de/despues de is very familiar Spanish to me. I found the lesson to be easily understandable and had no problem with it, so I am curious as to why it is not considered to be Latin American Spanish.

Gracias y saludos

Hi, i’m confused about jugaron here. Why not jugaban? We don’t know when the playing stopped. Thanks a lot. Shirley. 

Thankfully I do receive the weekend workouts by email, but my preferred method is to select from the Weekend Workouts page, especially for catching up. The last one listed was 20th May 2022 and it's now 10th July.

https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/weekend-workouts 

Will this be updated? 

Thank you!

We can't use the gerund as an adjective...so why is there "casas colgando"? Isn't it the gerund here?

Creo que no   -Wouldn't this call the subjunctive (conozca) NOT the present indicative?

why does "a tan solo 2 minutos de empezar" mean "2 minutes before starting" but "a los 2 minutos de empezar" mean "2 minutes after starting"?.. why does the meaning change because of an added word?