Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,594 questions • 8,935 answers • 865,986 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,594 questions • 8,935 answers • 865,986 learners
Does this construction always require indicative or can it also be used with subjunctive?
I am very confused. In the above lesson it describes when to use poder in the preterite indefinido.
in this lesson there seems to be No specific moment in the past or where speaker is outside the time frame
This lesson "Conjugate poder in the preterite tense in Spanish (El Pretérito Indefinido)" it describes when to use the preterite indfinido when referring to a specific moment in past and time it happened is relevent OR referes to pastwhere speakersees themselves outside the time frame
Someone else has asked a similar question but in regards to the interchangeability of the tenses, if you were to say "You could have called me the whole evening", can you still say "Podrías/Podías haberme llamado toda la tarde" or do you have to use "Pudiste haberme llamado toda la tarde" because it is in a set time frame now?
Might be a stupid question, but i dont really understand the difference between when to use “tratar” and “tratar de”..? Thank you!
i think that a better answer to question would be "i am someone who really enjoys doing sports", rather than "i am more someone...". because otherwise it should have been "yo soy mas de hacer deporte"
Trick questions like this one don't help and no one is going to put that adjective in front of axe in Spanish. Smh. I like this web site but the way you guys format questions is really annoying at times. The questions should reflect how a native is MOST LIKELY to say something, not "well let's mess with these people trying to learn a language and confuse them at the same time."
This lesson needs a lot of work. If you put expressions with "desde hace" and "hace" in an online translator they ALL come back with the same sentence in English. It's nearly impossible to tell when you're supposed to use "desde hace." More examples are needed. In fact I can't even tell from the lesson why I would ever use "desde hace" when "hace" works just fine for the same meaning. Moreover I talk to natives every single day and no one has corrected me to say "desde hace" instead of "hace." So maybe I'm crazy but maybe this lesson needs work.
The question asked for imperfect for Ir with subjects of "tu y Marcos", and I put "ibais". This was counted wrong and the correct answer given as "iban". I could understand both being counted as correct, but why is "ibais" incorrect?
Puedes hablar y Dejan usar in the same sentence ? Te and Ellos?
Hi, sometimes a blue pencil appears when I submit a question. What does it mean? Thanks, Shirley.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level