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5,444 questions • 8,260 answers • 798,814 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,444 questions • 8,260 answers • 798,814 learners
Es la primera vez que he visto el verbo versar. Entiendo el sentido en este contexto. ¿Mi cuestión se trata de cómo habitual es?
Puedo escribir lo que quiera y no es tan agobiante como para que me lo encuentre dificilísimo y no quiera continuar. = I can write what I want and it’s not so overwhelming that I find it very difficult and do not want to continue. My question is why is para que used here? Does it carry the meaning of in order to, so that? Because translation shows otherwise not indicating the subordinate clause as goals. And tan… Como is used here. Does it have another meaning when used with para que ?
I’ve been trying to find a lesson note on this. Que ya voy = im already going. What is the role of the word ‘que’ in this sentence? I only found notes about que as command or exclamation or as conjunction. Can anyone enlighten me on this usage of que and its meaning?
In Question 6 of the quiz, 'podamos' is used in the sentence. Shouldn't this be 'podemos' or is it used in the subjunctive tense?
Thank you.
why cant Estamos muy feliz be used?
why is ser being used to describe moods?
is using desde = from okay for this context? and why not?
Hi,
The main part of this lesson has no audio. Could you please fix this if possible?
(Aunque + the imperfect subjunctive in Spanish)
Thanks
Puedes escribir lo corto que sea
What does this sentence mean? I’m trying to say you can write however short it is.
And why is there subjunctive following lo corto?
Can anyone direct me to the correct grammar for this ?
How to say to have something done with a sentence using the verb in the 3rd person plural
this is the other lesson that uses 3rd person plural verb conjugation.
I find this lesson very similar to the other and I cannot see any differences at all.
for example,
me han robado . this could be for this lesson of being impersonal but this can only be under the other lesson that something negative happened or something was done on me.
Are they actually the same thing?
i am confused. there is another lesson that uses deber in perfect tense and deber in present + haber to indicate assumption that something must have happened that is expressed by the main verb as infinitive or past participle. This lesson seems to be speaking of the same thing until the last part that says
Eso debe de haber caducado hace tiempo
That must have expired some time agoI am confused by this 2 very similar lessons. may you point out the differences to me?
how do I use such structure to say something must had been done as in an assumption in the past?
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