Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect. 

Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied =  He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?

“Como”can be written with and without accent, it depends on whether it has a interrogative or comparative function.

I guessed this correctly but when I clicked on the explanation of past participle examples in Spanish it did not explain why it is escrita? 

Can someone please explain?

You say in the notes: 

But in the most recent exercise I did, when the question was is "ese sartén" correct, given the gender of the noun, and I said no, my answer was marked wrong. 

Is there an inconsistency somewhere?

How do you know which infinitives require the preposition A to link the verbs?

Is this the accent of someone from Spain? It sounded different from what I have heard in the Americas.