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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,080 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,038,101 learners
Can you guys give us a full breakdown of what things (verbs) use the third person "they did this for me" but it's translated in English as "I had done." ?? It's very confusing and it seems kinda random what things you can use this with or not. The only reason I even knew that this structure existed is because I have some Mexican family members who use this structure but in English. For instance they might they "they're fixing the car right now." But they mean they're having the car fixed for them right now.
In some lessons you guys mention personal care "being done for oneself" but it's still first person, like cutting hair, doing nails. I'm just confused as to when it's ok to use third person or not.
How do you say "both A and B", especially if A and B are different genders? For example, how do you say "both Jane and Jack are good students"? Thank you.
I am a bit upset at the fact that a hint given on a test made me change the correct answer to an incorrect. I just finished a quiz and the question was "Sus padres ________ bastante delgados. Their parents are quite slim.
(HINT: Their parents have always been slim )". I knew the answer was "son" however after seeing the hint, I changed it to "tienen" even though I thought, or knew it was wrong. I changed it based on the hint. Imagine my dismay when I found out the answer was "son" and I had known it in the first place.Worth a trip to Spain just to hear Inma speak . . .
How exactly do we use this as it means "Curiosities" as well!!
I heard some intresting facts about you.
He oído algunos curiosidades de ti.
Is it okay to say this?
"... contemplaría llover intensamente" is an interesting semantic construction - not immediately intuitive to a native English speaker. However, it is consistent with the fact that Spanish often tends to use an infinitive to translate a gerund or a noun in English: [you do have at least one exercise illustrating this point, I believe].
Dear Kwiziq,
In virtually all of the dictations I have completed, I have found that it is quite difficult to discern when a sentence ends based on the speakers voice. This is to say, the speaker lowers his/her voice in a way that implies the end of a sentence, but when the answer is shown it becomes apparent to me that the lowering of the speaker's voice was actually meant to convey a pause. Is this the natural way hispanohablantes speak --- whether from Spain or Central/South America? Of course, as recommended, I do listen to the dictation before attempting to write it out, but I cannot memorize where sentences end vs. when there is a pause in the speaker's speech. Consequently, I'm constantly guessing at when the sentence ends. I am a native English speaker and typically, when translating spoken English to written form, lowering of the voice signifies a period --- not a pause (comma). As such, I often find it confusing (indeed, quite frustrating) to differentiate pauses from ends of sentences in the Kwiziq dictation exercises.
Pati Inez Ecuamiga
So, I'm trying to solidify this idea in my head by contrasting it with the imperfecto de subjuntivo. Is the subordinate clause not in the subjunctive here because the speaker (presumably the 3rd party and the person repeating the statement) take for granted the factual of the idea (ie in the sentence "el hombre de tiempo dijo que llovería hoy" that the idea that it is going to rain is considered a fact, and not a supposition.
Somehow I haven’t seen the verbs “derrapar” and “pisar” before. It’s great that you’re choosing verbs that expand our vocabulary. Keep up the good work.
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