Spanish language Q&A Forum

Se me ha olvidado la llave.  Does the lesson apply to this usage also?

In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.

Just wondering why the extra word is in the English translation.

No hagan ruido
Don't make (any) noise    Kwiziq

No hagan ningún ruido 
Don't make any noise     

It might be worth mentioning that "Es lógico que" tends to require a subjunctive [or always does?] - because intuitively one might regard it as a certainty; i.e., we do need to learn and remember this.

Hello! Could you differentiate when you might use these two phrases? For example, if the sentence is - I am about to take a shower:

-Estoy a punto de ducharme 

-Estoy para ducharme

Are these sentences saying the same thing or is there some nuance that I'm missing out on?

Listening and understanding is certainly my weakest point in learning Spanish. Although my initial Kviziq test placed me in category C1, I know that I am not really at that level in all respects. Thus, these B2 (and even some B1) exercises are proving useful - Many Thanks ! … (The fact that I managed to notice that [in your sentence: ... Dalí y su "Muchacha en la ventana"] "mujer" was accidentally spoken in place of "muchacha", must mean that I am making some progress).

In the writing challenge we are asked to translate: "The Spanish guitar has 6 strings and consists of a wooden box, a neck and a fretboard". Kwiziq's answer is given as "La guitarra española tiene 6 cuerdas y está formada por una caja de madera, un mástil y un diapasón"  and "está hecha de una caja..." is given as an alternative answer. 

I used consistir en instead of estar formada por  or está hecha de. However, if the sentence had been "The Spanish guitar is made of..." I'm pretty sure I would have gone with está hecha de.

So, is my answer wrong? Or, could my answer be considered a third alternative? And could you explain the differences between the two forms, consistir en and estar formado por/estar hecha de, and in what contexts I might use one in preference to another.

Saludos 

Looking at: "... fue la capital del Califato … que fue proclamado por Abderramán III en 929" > My first thoughts were that AbdulRahman III had perhaps proclaimed Córdoba as his capital in 929 AD, which would have required "proclamada" to agree with the feminine noun "capital". Then I remembered that he had actually declared himself [very controversially !] to be "the Caliph of all Muslims, everywhere" (including those in Baghdad, and Syria, and even those in the Fatimid Empire in North Africa !) - so "proclamado" presumably agrees with "Califato"?

As I'm sure Inma knows, Seville was the first capital of Al-Ándalus [was it?], and Abdul-Rahman the First transferred his seat of power to Córdoba in 766 AD.