Spanish language Q&A Forum

+ es improbable

Cuando queremos decir "you won't regret it!", por qué con el verbo arrepentirse lo usamos sin el objeto "it", pero cuando usamos el verbo lamentar, lo usamos con el objeto "it". 

Por ejemplo: No te arrepentirás (sin objeto) versus no lo lamentarás (con objeto)
 (muchas gracias)

Why does my lesson include 'vosotros'/'sois'and other lessons from European Spanish.  I am trying to learn Latin Spanish and have set my account to Latin Spanish.  This is very confusing if you actually try to teach me a different language to the one that I chose. 

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

Acá se puede usar «del que» o «del cual» también?

Wouldn´t some other options for "appetizer" include: entrante, aperitivo, entrada?

For "main course":  plato principal, plato fuerte

for "some":  algunos/algunas   as in "algunas buenas verduras"

The above is an A2 question and the expected answer is te however no guidance is given that a singular informal tense is to be used.

Couldn't le, les or os also be used here if no further context is given.

So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?

No es posible usar la palabra 'lo' en la frase : no lo entiendo?