Spanish language Q&A Forum

I understand except for the last word "queráis    ".  I was expecting to see " queréis   " for the "you want" at the end.

Looking up queráis, I see that it is the present subjunctive and have read that it is used if there is a change in the subject.

I can't see a change in subject. The first part of the sentence has "you" as subject ans so does the second part.

I expect that I've missed something crucial here so please help me to understand.

Thanks.

Thank you so much for this detailed explanation Inma. It's greatly appreciated. I hope it's fair to say that I wish that  Leísmo/Loísmo/Laísmo didn't exist 🙄... another thing for my old brain to try to remember. ;))

Take a look at the first sentence above (It’s Below) but this time with a subject.

Carmen y Rosa llaman a la puerta.

Gracias,

Shirley. 

"Tardé unas pocas horas en hacerlo" is right as well, isn't it?

The examples all list a couple actions that are being requested or suggested.  Would it be just as normal to use it when there is just a single action being requested?  Like "Pones los papeles sobre la mesa" would sound as normal as a command as "Pon los papeles sobre la mesa"?  As a non-native speaker, if I talked that way would people think I don't know the imperative?

I found this confusing.

"Hemos pedido" translates into English as "asked," which is a past tense. So I wanted to use pusiera. But the answer requires present subjunctive (ponga).

Is it always true that when the main verb is in the present perfect, the subsequent clause will use the present subjunctive? So in Spanish we should treat present perfect as a present tense, whereas in English it is a past tense?