Spanish language Q&A Forum

Can I switch the two parts of the sentence and keep the basic structure of each clause and keep the meaning?  For example, instead of "Haciendo unos muebles de madera me corté con la sierra.", could I say:  "Me corté con la sierra haciendo unos muebles de madera."

Is "se" ever used with gustar outside the case of reflexive liking each other? 

Could I suggest adding a link to the aforementioned lesson so that that it's a little easier to see them difference between must have and should have? 

Does Spanish allow combining this construction to say:

“No se qué ves en ese chico. No es totalmente feo pero ni que fuera Brad Pitt.”

Or could/should I say, “No es feo pero (tampoco) no es como si fuera...”

Thanks! 

Hello, in this exercise the English for litre is spelt "liter" in one of the lines.  Thanks

I can't seem to get it right.

No me queda mucho dinero ________ tengo para dos cervezas más.

How come this should be 'pero'. I thought it was a substitute. First clause is negative and replaced by another, positive clause, hence I thought 'sino que'. Can one please point me to the critical part that would make me understand the difference? I feel so dumb.

Thank you in advance!

Hola,

Am I right in thinking this construction uses the present tense to represent ‘have’ and the imperfect tense to represent ‘had’, and that no other tense is used?

Gracias,

the same way it would be incorrect to say in English:

"The coffee changes the colour of your teeth."

The Latin Americans have a very rich history and culture.

The trouble is that both can be perfectly correct!  The former example could mean "This particular type of coffee", for example, whilst the latter is valid just as we might say "The French" or "The Spanish".