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5,619 questions • 8,967 answers • 871,352 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,619 questions • 8,967 answers • 871,352 learners
I’ve started to get kwiz questions about specific instances of the imperative, but I am very unfamiliar with it. Could you link me to the introductory lessons/material you have about forming the imperative? Thanks
Why is it 'como se llama' or 'como se llama usted' - not 'como te llama'?
In another lesson titled "Como, cuando, donde, quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish," it states that "Hablaré con ella cuando llegue a casa" translates to "I will speak to her whenever she arrives home." The term "whenever" implies uncertainty, suggesting that we do not know when she will arrive and indicating a future context. However, in this lesson, the sentence "Cuando vaya de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedaré en el hotel Olimpia" only implies a future context without conveying the sense of uncertainty as in the previous example ("whenever she arrives"). Therefore, I am curious: does "cuando" + present subjunctive mean "when" or "whenever"? Both examples refer to the future.
Hello,
Can you please explain why in this exercise it is only correct to use preterito imperfecto in the third sentence: Teníamos que conseguir muchos puntos para acceder al tesoro escondido - even though the story starts in the indefinido tense. A few sentences later it jumps again to indefinido: Este juego nos ayudó a ser pacientes - while the rest of the sentences are in the imperfecto tense.
Thank you :)
I am referring to Latin American Spanish vs. Castilian:
Is "Hasta ahora" used for the same purpose? If so, is it common/ colloquial to use it?
How would it be written? Hasta ahora pinté 2 cuartos? (He pintado / pintados ??)
Thank you
There has to be a way to make this stuff stick, and not make me fall asleep in the process. What can I do? I've my final on Monday so I need any help I can get.
Can you use estar para + noun? e.g. Miguel no está para bromas
Hi,
The above sentence seems to satisfy the requirements for sino: the first part is negative and the second part is a substitution.
Can you please explain why is requires pero and not sino.
Gracias y saludos.
Colin
Hi and thanks for all your work. This is a good breakdown however I still remain confused when two nouns don't require - de- between them
For example in a book I'm reading " el êpico fracas de Arturo Zamora" Theres a part that that says
Consejo ciudadano. ( citizen council)
This isn't the first time two nouns are next to each other without a " De" inbetween but I don't see the difference between this and something like
La sopa de Pollo
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