Use of definite article
Here are two phrases from the text, both giving advice.
1 Seguramente sabrás que en primavera deberías consumir espárragos trigueros, guisantes y habas. NO ARTICLE
2 Si fuera tú, pondría ingredientes como la lechuga, las endibias, las espinacas, etc. ARTICLES.
In answering a previous question about articles, Sylvia wrote:
In summary, the choice of using or not using the definite article
depends on the linguistic function of the phrase within the sentence,
whether it denotes a specific entity (requiring the article) or
describes a general quality or manner (where the article may be
omitted).
Am I correct that the use of 'como' in phrase 2 triggers a specific entity and thus the article?
Gracias
Here are two phrases from the text, both giving advice.
1 Seguramente sabrás que en primavera deberías consumir espárragos trigueros, guisantes y habas. NO ARTICLE
2 Si fuera tú, pondría ingredientes como la lechuga, las endibias, las espinacas, etc. ARTICLES.
In answering a previous question about articles, Sylvia wrote:
In summary, the choice of using or not using the definite article depends on the linguistic function of the phrase within the sentence, whether it denotes a specific entity (requiring the article) or describes a general quality or manner (where the article may be omitted).
Am I correct that the use of 'como' in phrase 2 triggers a specific entity and thus the article?
Gracias
I'm having the same problem. Suddenly my lessons include non-european Spanish. Help!
Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban". Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?
In one of the questions, Cabrán is the very first word of the sentence, and there is no other part of the sentence (like a mid-stream capitalization. I was marked only partially right for capitalizing it and it "corrected" me to lower-case.
Cabrán todo mis libros en esa caja?
Isn't that correct? The quiz said it was supposed to be
cabràn todo mis libros en esa caja?
I assume in the example above salir, the infinitive is not used with después because después is being used as adjective not as a proposition?
The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant.
The english text referred to great legends, so I chose gran, but it was marked incorrect. That seems to conflict with the answers given in the community.
“Pantalones" is plural in Spanish, and "uno" is singular. So we are essentially saying "a pair of pants" in Spanish by pluralizing uno in "unos pantalones." If I’m not mistaken this can also be used as “some” or “a few”. For example, unos días would be a few days. Also when used with a masculine noun, uno becomes un. For instance, un hombre not uno hombre. I’m posting this here just to clarify my understanding and in case it’s useful to other learners.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level