Spanish language Q&A Forum

This lesson says:

"In Spanish, to express that someone "would have [done something]" in the past, we use the auxiliary verb haber.

Haber [ìn the conditional simple] + participle of main verb"

However wouldn't you use the perfect conditional to say "would have"?

Note that the construction tal vez (maybe) accepts the indicative and the subjunctive moods with no change in meaning.

What do you mean with the "maybe" after tal vez? 

I came to this lesson from the quiz question:

Marta y yo ________ 200 km a la semana para ir a trabajar. Marta and I travel 200 km a week to go to work.(HINT: Conjugate "hacer" in El Presente)
Answer was “hacemos”, but I was expecting an explanation on why the verb “hacer” (to make) is applicable to what in English would be “travel”.

Why does this sentence have "lo"? Doesn't dejaron todo mean they left everything?

I have done two tests now where I have chosen "estaba imprimido", but it tells me I've chosen "estaba imprimiendo", so it is counted as an error.  I don't know why that is happening.  

Is this true for all regular verbs (-ar, -ir, -er)?

When do you use por in sentences and not para

For the phrase: Van (Uds.) a enviar los premios a nosotros?

To answer this question negatively, would it become:

no nos vamos a enviarlos

no nos los vamos a enviarlos (does the combination of nos + los clash because of the similar sounds)

Thank you!

For example ¿Comó se llama usted?

wouldn't that translate to "What do you call yourself you?" How come you can't just say ¿Comó se llama?

sin importar su origen se les llame "gallegos. Why is  the the subjunctive used with llamar rather that the indicative?