Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the sentence:

La bruja le maldice todos los años. (The witch curses him every year)

I expected it to read "lo maldice" to say "to curse him" where "him" would be the direct object. Why is it le?

I have noticed from time to time, that "muy" can be placed in front of a noun to add emphasis to the nature of the noun it is modifying. For example: Marco es muy trabajador. Marco is a very hard worker.

                                          Laura es muy cirujana. Laura is a very skilled surgeon.

Is this a legitimate usage for muy?

For ‘to need to’, when to use necessitated and when to use tener que?

Why was this marked wrong?

I selected "eres" and it was marked as incorrect.  The correct answer is "es."  How should I have know they expected a third person answer?

La Kwiziq FAQ me dice que puedo "kwiz" un tema tanto"s veces que quiero si está en mi "notebook."  He encontrado que si toma un "kwiz" y lo falla, cuando quiero tomarlo otra vez dice "You took this Kwiz XXX hours, XX minutes ago.

This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.

Puedo hacer cliq en "my notebook" y encontrar la lección que quiero estudiar y kwiz más. Pero dice lo mismo al fondo - que ya he tomado el Kwiz y tengo que ir a mi notebook si quiera kwiz otra vez. Excepto ya estoy en mi notebook. ¿Qué pasa? ¡Gracias!

In the examples using past actions in the main clause, either the pretérito imperfecto or the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo are used. However, in the explanation it says the pretérito indefinido or the plusucmaperfecto.

 Me temo que Cristina no podrá ir hoy al trabajo ...

A little off topic, but consider:

1. donde, adonde/a donde

2. dónde, adónde/a dónde

and for that matter (or maybe especially for the case of), 

3. quizá, quizás 

Within each group the various options can be used interchangeably. But what factors influence the chosen form? For example do some people tend to use the same form all the time? Do people just randomly use all the forms equally? Do some localities tend to use one form more than others? Is there a pronunciation efficiency issue (similar to y and i  or  o and u, but not a hard-and-fast rule)?

I guess my questions especially apply to quizá versus quizás. 

Hi, is the reason for not using an indefinite article with acento that acento is an uncountable noun? Thanks, 

Shirley. 

Good morning.

What is the difference in meaning between "Poder + estar + infinitive" vs "poder + infinitive"?