Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is ‘desde que légué less formal?

I am very confused with the use of subjunctive mode in hypothetical clauses intorduce by si  and the second followed by conditional verbs. I found out there their are different modes, present ,past, imperfect  1&2 , pluperfect 1&2. How do I know which is to use,?

Why was "Yo predigo que vas a ganar la loteria" marked wrong and the correct answer given was: "Predigo que..." ?

I have always thought it an option to use the pronoun with the verb even though it can be left out.

Kwizbot:  y el código de vestimenta dice que

I: y dice el código de vestimenta que

How much less preferable is my response to Kwibot's here?

Hi, a suggestion: “This is to preserve the hard G sound from the infinitive”. (The Spanish G sounds like the jota when it comes before an E or and I: G+E: gente (people), recoger (to collect), alegra (happy) G+I: digital (digital), girasol (sunflower), elegir (to choose)). 

Shirley. 

In this exercise, the adjective "gran" has been placed BEFORE the noun "siesta". To me, that suggests that the nap was "great", "wonderful", "marvelous", etc. as opposed to big, (i.e., long) in which case, I think that the adjective "grande" would be used and placed BEHIND the noun "siesta". However, in the English translation, I think I remember the word "big" being used (I'm not absolutely positive about this). Would you care to comment on this issue?

Hi

I would say "I'm going on holidays" plural in English. It might be regional, I'm Australian and have lived in London for 20 years. I think it could be used singular or plural.

I've been a bit confused because I would put it the same way as in Spanish. I've got a lot wrong thinking it was different. Could It be explained some non-US English call it holidays plural too. Are there any others that found this confusing?

Why is the answer !Los coches que venden aquí son espectaculares!

It looks fairly similar to me?

Is there any difference between the conjugation of "pensar" and that of the other semi-regular "stem-changing -ar verbs" in a previous lesson? Just wondering why "pensar" was singled out for a lesson of its own.

Why???

I just figured out why I'm missing all the "usted" questions. When I go study verb charts, none of them even list the formal, so I have incorrectly using the second person plural.

But why? I've been told that it's hardly used, and if they don't even include it in the conjugation charts, . . . Really?