Spanish language Q&A Forum

I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost. 

Hello, excellent lesson.  We know that "un/una" changes with gender.  Is this true of every number that ends with "un/una"?

Ex:

Vientiún estudiantes, veintiuna camas

Ciento un aguacates, ciento una botellas

Thanks.

Does querer que trigger the subjunctive if it's something you're wishing for yourself? 

Miguel tiene una novia y tu tienes

demasiada ( incorrect answer).  The correct answer is demasiadas

Miguel has one girlfriend and you have too many.

Una novia is singular so why is my answer demasiada wrong.

Hi, Inma

I translated the sentence "it would be very difficult to determine it." into "sería difícil de definirlo", and the correct answer removed the "de".

But when I translated the sentence "that will be hard to forget for tango lovers" into "que será difícil olvidar para los amantes del tango." the correct answer asked me to add a "de" after "difícil". 

I'm so confused now.

Saludos

Wenli

¿Por qué hay tilde en “ ésa”? 

“ésa sería mi abuela Carmen sin duda.”

In this example, the subject (in English) of the sentence (todas las chicas) precedes the verb in the first sentence, but follows the verb (todas) in the second sentence. Would it be acceptable to place the subject before the verb in the second sentence so that it reads: "No, no a todas les gusta."?