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5,681 questions • 9,137 answers • 894,802 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,681 questions • 9,137 answers • 894,802 learners
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
I am confused about the verbs 'oir' and 'escuchar'
Would it be "estoy escuchando music" o "estoy oyendo musica" are both correct?
My question from yesterday was poorly worded. One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases? If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?
I don't see anywhere in the lesson that the "que" can be omitted. I don't think the sentence looks right either.
"Sobre" was given as a hint for "on" one page prior to where it was used (on the last line of text).
“Tiene algo que declarar/hacer” but “Tiene algo de comer” or sometimes “Tiene algo para comer.” How does one know which one to use when?
I need the conjugation chart with all pronouns, please.
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