por que vs para queThe use of por instead of para in the sentence: "Puse todo de mi parte por que no termináramos separados." (with the given English translation "I did my best so that we wouldn't end up being apart.") is confusing and appears inaccurate to me.
This question was asked 5 years ago with a response from Inma from Kwiziq that both por and para are correct here. However, por que + subjunctive appears highly idiosyncratic and I cannot find support for this construction anywhere. I checked this with two native Spanish speaking friends and a native Spanish speaking tutor and all agreed they would never say this sentence and that it was not grammatically correct. "Por no terminar" seems defensible and also sounds natural again to me and native speaking friends.
Consulting with Butt et al. 2019 ( p. 509) supports the use of por with an infinitive interchangeably with para but not in the way used in the Kwiziq example sentence and definitely not with a subjunctive following. Some verbs take por and could be followed by a subjunctive (e.g., luchar por) but this does not seem generalizable across verbs.
Can you please clarify and/or correct this in the lesson to avoid further confusion?
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38.17.16 He venido por hablarle or para hablarle?
Both prepositions may translate ‘to’ or ‘in order to’ in sentences like ‘I’ve come to talk to you’. Insome cases, they are virtually interchangeable:
¿Para qué has venido? What have you come for?
¿Por qué has venido? Why have you come?
Estoy aquí para/por verlo/le I’ve come to see him
...
(1) Important: if an English sentence can be rewritten using a phrase like ‘out of a desire to’ or ‘from an urge to’, then por can be used. If not, para is indicated.
References:
1. Butt J, Benjamin C, Rodríguez AM. A New Reference Grammar of Modern Spanish 6ed. London ; New York: Routledge; 2019. 215-955-6627 1 3
I'm fascinated by these constructions and how they mirror English so well in terms of ''She went and started dancing on the table'', ''After they had everything prepared for the wedding, Luis (only) goes and breaks up with her!". I've never seen them before, and it has me wondering, - are they newer constructions in Spanish, due to contact with English, or have they been around for the last 20 or 30 years at least?
The test answer is “conforme” but it should be “conforme a” según la lección. ?
The use of por instead of para in the sentence: "Puse todo de mi parte por que no termináramos separados." (with the given English translation "I did my best so that we wouldn't end up being apart.") is confusing and appears inaccurate to me.
This question was asked 5 years ago with a response from Inma from Kwiziq that both por and para are correct here. However, por que + subjunctive appears highly idiosyncratic and I cannot find support for this construction anywhere. I checked this with two native Spanish speaking friends and a native Spanish speaking tutor and all agreed they would never say this sentence and that it was not grammatically correct. "Por no terminar" seems defensible and also sounds natural again to me and native speaking friends.
Consulting with Butt et al. 2019 ( p. 509) supports the use of por with an infinitive interchangeably with para but not in the way used in the Kwiziq example sentence and definitely not with a subjunctive following. Some verbs take por and could be followed by a subjunctive (e.g., luchar por) but this does not seem generalizable across verbs.
Can you please clarify and/or correct this in the lesson to avoid further confusion?
--
38.17.16 He venido por hablarle or para hablarle?
Both prepositions may translate ‘to’ or ‘in order to’ in sentences like ‘I’ve come to talk to you’. Insome cases, they are virtually interchangeable:
¿Para qué has venido? What have you come for?
¿Por qué has venido? Why have you come?
Estoy aquí para/por verlo/le I’ve come to see him
...
(1) Important: if an English sentence can be rewritten using a phrase like ‘out of a desire to’ or ‘from an urge to’, then por can be used. If not, para is indicated.
References:
1. Butt J, Benjamin C, Rodríguez AM. A New Reference Grammar of Modern Spanish 6ed. London ; New York: Routledge; 2019. 215-955-6627 1 3
I was surprised that this sentence took "sido" and not "estado". As the speaker is talking about their emotional state over a specific time period, rather than their personalities more generally, would "estar" not be used over "ser"?
Wondering the answer to the below question is. I noticed this too: me permitan hacerla
In “ Cada domingo estudio español ________ almuerzo.” since the subject is the same in both clauses, can’t you use the infinitive without que “desde terminar el” ?
Could you differentiate the usage of tras rather than después (de) in daily use please?
Why are Latin American lessons included but no opportunities to practice them? Okay --- the focus of this Kwiziq platform is Europe so why not stick to that instead of inserting Latin American lessons with NO practice opportunities. This is confusing.
Pati Ecuamiga
Instead of "tener que", and we say "deber" instead?
Does "Tengo que lavar los manos" and "Debo lavar los manos" have the same usage?
Hola y
¡Feliz Pascua Silvia, Inma y todo el equipo!
Por favor dime, ¿Las saetas suenan un poquito como cuando cantan en las jotas?
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