Spanish language Q&A Forum

As far as I can see, the text doesn’t discuss ‘hasta’ which is listed as an option in the answers but marks as wrong. My dictionary seems to have some examples where ‘hasta’ is used for movement towards a place. What is the distinction?

In the 1st person and 3rd person singular in the given examples I notice that the words from the verb 'to be able to', i.e 'could' and 'couldn't' are used. In sentences like these would we just have to be aware that these words are implied? 

Thank you 

Clari.

 Since the preposition “a” as a personal “a” wouldn’t “les” also be a correct?

hi the Link to the wider lesson on this isnt working. When will it be available?

Im currently working on the idea that (in Spain) spaniards use the present perfect (when English would use the simple past) when there is a sense that the verb happened in the recent past, or otherwise related to the present in some way. e.g  you SAW the film THIS week, we SAW your parents (maybe THIS morning), or they SAW the sunrise (last night).

is this right? 

The answer to ‘they were about to finish their exam’ is given as ‘Han estado a punto de...’   

there’s no sense that this is the situation of ‘but something intervened’, and it doesn’t feel like a natural ‘perfecto’ tense to me, more just an action in the past. So I’m wondering why the perfecto was chosen here?

What's the difference between:

Hace ocho semanas que estudié.

y

Hace ocho semanas estudié.

I understand the first sentence from this lesson, but is the second one just incorrect or does it mean something else?

 Is this how you say "went shopping", or "looked round the shops"??

Is there a reason why "and you can see advertising" translates as "es posible encontrar publicidad." Would "y [se] puede ver publicidad be acceptable?