Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

In the introduction it states ...."all the other endings are the same as regular er verbs íste, ímos, ísteis."

Is this correct? Aren't the ending of regular er verbs iste, imos and isteis all without the accent?

Or am i missing something?

Thanks.

Buenas tardes Inma,

Which do you find is the more commonly used of the two forms? Is it down to personal choice as to whether one uses the regular or irregular form?

Gracias 

Clara

One of the questions connected to this lesson is: No es posible que ________ en la montaña. (It is not possible that they got lost in the mountains.)

The correct answers are given as se perdieran and se perdiesen. But why can't it be se hayan perdido as well?

Hi,

Can you explain when one might use sólo as opposed to solo? They both seem to mean "just" or "only."

Thanks. John

Could you explain 'dime' for me please. Would this be classed as an Imperative? I'm thinking especially of sentences like, 'Dime algo'

Gracias

Clara

dos pequenos problemas in la seccion verde asi, "And both of these categories are considered invariable indifinite pronouns, that is to say, they don't change to agree in gender or number with the noun that are substituying."

indefinite= indefinite

that are substituying  = that they are substitituting for