Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:

La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho

Me ha encantado tu actuación

The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different). 

All the examples are for when someone disagrees with the first statement. Could these ever be used to express agreement? 

Confession. I always cheat on questions regarding the second person plural because I live in California where I have frequent opportunities to use Spanish and hope to have more both at home and in travels to Central and South America. No disrespect to Spain, but is there any way to alter my tests so they exclude questions which test Spanish as it's spoken in Spain. Thanks.

When, if ever, is the construction "no...nada" used? When is "nada" used?

Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!

Hi,

In the sentence above, the translation of "... comer sano." is given as '... eat healthily'.  Doesn't 'sano' mean 'healthy' and 'sanamente' mean healthily?

I'm sorry to be so pedantic, but I like to get things right at the start.

Best regards,

Colin

Would it be correct to include the articles Un, una after por? 

Hola Inma

Are any of these suffixes interchangeable or are they noun/verb/adjective specific. For example could you say "perrote," or "perrón" as well as "perrazo."

Saludos. John

1:30 is more than 1:00. 1 = es. Me imagino que más que uno debe estar "son", no? Or are all hours plural even when they're not?

I don't understand the construction of the sentence: You do not have my permission to talk to me this way

“no te consiento que me hables así” surely implies: I do not permit you to talk to me this way

Is this wrong:

Tú no tienes mi permiso para hablar conmigo así.