Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.

A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.

My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".

Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".

The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.].  My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?

Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.

Regards,

Pati Ecuamiga

I get this message even after I click around for awhile:

You took this Kwiz 16 minutes ago.

This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.

I answered "alguno," but apparently the answer is "algunos."  I don't understand why based on this quote from the lesson.  Thanks!

"Sometimes, when alguno and alguna are used in affirmative sentences, it has the nuance of "some random something/someone", "one or two" or "the odd one". The idea is non-specific in number and can refer to one or more items. It does agree in gender but not in number: even if it refers to a plural noun, the pronoun is in the singular form, not the plural form."

How does this lesson fit with the other lesson "Using Querer in El Preterito Indefinido vs. El Preterito Imperfecto", which seems to be saying that querer in the Simple Past means "to try"?

Mis amigos van a pagar una cena en un restaurante tailandés.

So here, quemar is indicative. Would the subjunctive queme also be acceptable in this sentence? Or does the si prompt indicative only?

(Translation for the interested: Dalí would say that if the Prado Museum burned down, he would save only this painting.)

Using an online translator to translate "Then it can be demonstrated that the statement is true."

I get "Entonces se puede demostrar que la afirmación es verdadera."

In the English translation it is optional whether you say "it can be demonstrated" or "one can demonstrate".

Is this the same construct as the one covered in this lesson? If so, should there be examples of it above? If not, is there a lesson that covers this one?

Thank you!

Hola Inma,

¿Espero que estés bien? 

¡He disfrutado mucho este ejercicio con todas las expresiones idiomáticas! :)

Please could you let me know if I've understood these correctly in the context of the exercise: 

-higos a brevas= once in a blue moon.

-a tope= fully, to the fullest.

-de punta en blanco= dressed up to the nines, dressed to kill. 

-se mantiene en sus trece= digging his heels in, sticking to his guns (refusing to go).

Also, I'm unsure about the sentence which includes "ya he liado a mis amigos..."  Does liar here mean 'to manage to' or 'to trick'? 

Gracias 

As Michael says, pronouns are not easy. 

But why add to our misery by adding the ‘insignificant’ note regarding the position of pronouns with infinitives, imperatives and gerunds. That’s surely worth a lesson all of its own.