Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is "lo mío" singular? Why not "los míos son" or "lo mío es"?

The question did not specify to use the tú or usted form, and in a later question, it did specify "tú."  So I typed "leyó", but was marked wrong. I had "leiste" until I saw "tú" specified later, so I changed it.  Either both should be right or it should be specified, to reduce frustration.  I can see if you were talking to a family member or close friend (in an obvious context), then it should be expected to be "tú." But this was quite ambiguous- you could have loaned a book to a friend or a colleague or boss.

Are there other similar idiomatic expressions or must one use the conventional gramatical constructs? For example:

If you were me... (Tú que yo?) 

If I were him... (Yo que él?) 

If he were you... (Él que tu?) 

etc. 

In this exercise the preterit 3rd person singular of "creer" is shown as "crió" whereas in my other Spanish dictionaries it is shown as "creció". Is the former conjugation specific to Latin America whilst the latter (creció) is specific to Spain?

My bad, it just wasn’t clear. Would help is the form structure in the first part would read something like: Haber (past) + estado + present participle 

Espanol I U5 Indirect Object Pronouns

Change the personal pronoun to an Indirect object pronoun.

Me – Te – Le – Nos – Les

1. Yo y Ella __________ 11. Jessie __________

2. Tú y El __________ 12. Ellos y yo _________

3. Ud. __________ 13. Ron __________

4. El Maestro __________ 14. Ustedes _______

5. Ella __________ 15. Yo y ellos __________

6. Nosotros __________ 16. La tia _________

7. Ellos y Ellas __________ 17. Las profesoras _________

8. Ustedes y yo __________ 18. Pamela y yo _________

9. Ellos __________ 19. El hermano __________

10. Rodolfo y Ud. __________ 20. Santiago __________

All the examples have nouns of the same gender/number on both ends of the sentence. What if it was "Maria es igual de alt_ que los gemelos"? Is it "alta" because Maria, or is "altos" because "los gemelos"?