Spanish language Q&A Forum

The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.

Tom

I'm finding myself very confused because you are assuming something that I haven't been taught to assume. (I've been taught to assume something else.) I don't want to reprogram my brain! I'm content with *recognizing* (in a passive way) when the vosotros form is being used. But I'd like to continue to use ustedes when it is appropriate in the form of Spanish I've been learning and using. I don't want to learn (in an active way) the vosotros form.

Shouldn't it ne present simple no sabemos?