Spanish language Q&A Forum

Please delete! This one was written in error!

Please delete! This one was written in error!

Apologies, as this is a bit outside the lesson. Can the infinitive ever stand alone as a command in Spanish (without the a + form) in either the negative or positive? I was under the impression that it could, but I don’t specifically remember learning to do so, and I might be transferring from another language I’ve studied. Thanks!

Hola,

¿Qué es la diferencia de significado entre "Alguien no tiene que hacer algo" y "Alguien no tiene por qué hacer algo"? Y ¿por qué no se use "por que", sino "por qué" con el acento?

Gracias!  (I hope that all made sense!) 

It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido. 

The noun "búho" [= eagle owl] is an illustration of the way in which a 'silent h' has no bearing on whether or not there is a hiatus. At first glance, foreigners might think [incorrectly] that it should form two syllables *without* the need for a tilde.

He visto que unos diccionarios no usan el acento y unos lo hacen. 

I put "y nos bronceamos en tumbonas." Is this wrong? 

I read somewhere that it is also possible to have someone camped outside your door all night, armed with a sub-machine gun ! ... [Perhaps that would entail having an 'escape-route' available, e.g. through the window?]

Great structure to know!  Check your English translations, however, as they don't fit the correct grammar patterns:

1.  If PRESENT, then FUTURE

2.  If IMPERFECT, then CONDITIONAL

3.  Your "If PLUPERFECT, then CONDITIONAL PERFECT" examples are correct.