Spanish language Q&A Forum

It says above "if  the sentence has me, te, se, le, nos, os, les then no goes in front of these"

But what about direct  object pronouns los, las, lo, la?

Hola, 

I found this a lot to digest, so re-wrote the lesson to try to understand it better.

Would you be able to do me a big favour and check to see if I’ve understood it correctly?

Muchísimas gracias,

One of the possible answers for a kwiz question was "Es posible que hace frío hoy". Why wouldn't this be a correct sentence? 

I chose "Mientras que yo hice la compra" for the mini kwiz which was wrong. But one of the example sentences uses the indefinite: "Su romance fue bonito mientras duró." I guess I'm unclear about why the indefinite was wrong on the kwiz. 

Also, for the sense of "mientras" meaning "as long as", could we substitute "si"? 

Hola Inma,

I'm trying to understand better why the subjunctive is used. Are negative opinions like no creo que, no opino que, no pienso que, no parece que etc, always assumed to reflect an element of doubt on the part of the person i.e. "I don't think so .... but I may be wrong." 

If you are adamant that the negative opinion is correct [for example using one of the examples in the associated lesson] "I don't think María is jealous," couldn't that also be taken as a clear statement of my opinion without any doubt in my head at least? This would be possible in English. In which case would it be expressed differently in Spanish for example "Estoy seguro de que María no es celosa."

Saludos. John

Hola Inma,

Regarding the sentence "¿A quién no le gustaría quedarse en un lugar así? With the meaning "who would not like to stay in a place like this" I expected that the subjunctive may be needed, though exactly how this would work with the conditional is beyond me. Perhaps the inference is that absolutely nobody would refuse to stay there but I am speculating. Can you help?

Saludos

John

Hola,

Is the ‘hitting’ azo always in the masculine form?

I’m seeing cabezazo rather than cabezaza.

Gracias,

I see a translation of "Yo suelo ir" as "I usually go" but a translation of "suelo" as ground or floor. Is it an idiomatic phrase?

Are "antes de que" and "antes que" fully interchangeable? Does one sound better than the other or is used more in one or another situation? (It could help to say this explicitly.) 

Also, you run through the various past/present/future possibilities of "después de que" noting where the subjunctive or indicative is used. You don't give as many cases for "antes de que". Is it correct to infer that regardless of whether we are referring to a past, present or future event, "antes de que" must always be followed by the subjunctive. (Might help to say so explicitly if this is the case.) 

I still don't get email notifications when new answers are posted.