Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the writing test "Remedy for aching muscles B2"  it says "No hay nada

 que odie más". Why is it not "No hay nada que odio más"?

ıs that wrong sentence? why don't we say 'hay demasiadas frutas en la nevera'.?

because fruit is countable.ı think we should use 'many ' for countable and in spanish many is damasiada.

"Oviedo is a city in the north of Spain" was missing from the translation?

These seem to be my achilleas heal.

I have noticed that all of the verbs that have a stem change in the future (querer -> querr-  and tener -> tendr-) have the same stem in the future and the conditional tenses.  Is this a general rule, or are there exceptions.  

This was the question: How would you say "When I put the parasol on the beach it always blows away."?

If this is something that always happens, why was it wrong to use the indicative? I don't see the future here.

I don't understand me gustan with first person.  Is this the formal version?

I am a bit upset at the fact that I changed my correct answer to an incorrect answer based on a hint given.   I just finished taking a quiz and the question was:  

Sus padres ________ bastante delgados.

Their parents are quite slim.

(HINT: Their parents have always been slim )

 I knew the answer was "son", however I changed it to "tienen" based on the hint given.  Imagine my dismay when I got the question wrong after knowing the correct answer and changing it because because of the hint.