Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
- « Back to Q&A Forum
- « Previous questionNext question »
David C.Kwiziq community member
Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Spanish modal verb deber in the conditional simple + haber + participle = should have "
Asked 3 years ago
![](/files/shared/_avatar-mids/user/59078/20211201_172643_61a7b33952c58.jpg)
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola David
This is because we form the auxiliary "should" by using the simple conditional of the verb "deber" = debería
Then what follows is "haber" (infinitive always) + past participle of the main verb.
Saludos
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Ask a question![Kwizbot, a friendly bot](https://cdnes.kwiziq.com/img/kwizbot/kwizbot-v2.svg)
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level