Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
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David C.KwizIQ community member
Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Spanish modal verb deber in the conditional simple + haber + participle = should have "
Asked 5 years ago
InmaKwizIQ Head of Spanish, Native Spanish Teacher
Hola David
This is because we form the auxiliary "should" by using the simple conditional of the verb "deber" = debería
Then what follows is "haber" (infinitive always) + past participle of the main verb.
Saludos
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