Referring to John O's comment

Roger H.A2KwizIQ community member

John O,
...JO said.......All you have to do is click on the search icon and ask "past participle" or "indirect object....

Thanks for that John. Then it is not as bas as I thought. I might still ask, but when not explain the definition in the text of the explanation.

The answer to that would be -- it would become very repetitive if we repeated the definition of verb, noun etc every time we mentioned the word.

I didn't know that there was a search / lookup function for definitions - so I accept my criticism might have been a bit harsh. Not explaining grammar blows my mind and as you said, nobody seems to do it -and when I didn't see it here I was triggered! I will go and have a look at that search function and maybe other people will now know of it thanks to your response.
RogerH

This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Spanish pronouns le / les become se when used with lo, la, los, las (indirect with direct pronouns)"

Asked 3 hours ago

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Roger H. asked:

Referring to John O's comment

John O,
...JO said.......All you have to do is click on the search icon and ask "past participle" or "indirect object....

Thanks for that John. Then it is not as bas as I thought. I might still ask, but when not explain the definition in the text of the explanation.

The answer to that would be -- it would become very repetitive if we repeated the definition of verb, noun etc every time we mentioned the word.

I didn't know that there was a search / lookup function for definitions - so I accept my criticism might have been a bit harsh. Not explaining grammar blows my mind and as you said, nobody seems to do it -and when I didn't see it here I was triggered! I will go and have a look at that search function and maybe other people will now know of it thanks to your response.
RogerH

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