Lo de que María se va a vivir a Francia, ¿es verdad? Part 2

Gary

Kwiziq community member

2 November 2018

4 replies

Lo de que María se va a vivir a Francia, ¿es verdad? Part 2

Why lo de que? Maria is a noun. Why isn't it lo de?

This relates to:
Using lo de que + conjugated verb / lo de + noun / infinitive / adverb to refer to something already mentioned. -

Inma

Kwiziq language super star

2 November 2018

2/11/18

Hola Gary,

If it was only the noun, "María", then you'd need "Lo de María" but we have here a whole sentence with a conjugated verb. It may be confusing to see this in the lesson as we say:

Lo de que + conjugated verb

So I will slightly change the text in the lesson accordingly saying that the conjugated verb can be preceded by its subject, to make it clearer.

I hope this helped,

Gracias y un saludo,

Inma

Robin

Kwiziq community member

2 November 2018

2/11/18

It's because a subordinate clause is coming up - que often introduces such clauses.  It's 'lo de' with a noun or infinitive, but 'lo de que' whan there's a whole clause coming up.  Maria is just the subject of that clause. 

Gary

Kwiziq community member

2 November 2018

2/11/18

Thank-you. 

Gary

Kwiziq community member

2 November 2018

2/11/18

But then there is this: Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia..

This is a whole sentence with a verb so why isn't it, Lo de que  la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia...?

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