Kwiziq community member
2 November 2018
Lo de que María se va a vivir a Francia, ¿es verdad? Part 2
Why lo de que? Maria is a noun. Why isn't it lo de?
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Using lo de que + conjugated verb / lo de + noun / infinitive / adverb to refer to something already mentioned."
Kwiziq language super star
If it was only the noun, "María", then you'd need "Lo de María" but we have here a whole sentence with a conjugated verb. It may be confusing to see this in the lesson as we say:
Lo de que + conjugated verb
So I will slightly change the text in the lesson accordingly saying that the conjugated verb can be preceded by its subject, to make it clearer.
I hope this helped,
Gracias y un saludo,
But then there is this: Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia..
This is a whole sentence with a verb so why isn't it, Lo de que la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia...?
15 January 2019
Sorry we missed this other query. Here in this sentence:
"Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia.
we have "lo de" plus a noun (la prohibición). If we were using "lo de que...", as Robin mentioned previously, we would have a subordinate clause. See how a similiar sentence would work with "lo de que":
"Lo de que las autoridades hayan prohibido las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia."
You have here a whole clause after "que", and then after the comma you have the main verb "ha creado".
In the first sentence, "Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia." there is no subordinate clause. There is only one main verb.
"The ban on bullfighting (subject) has caused (erb) some controversy."
I hope this makes it clearer.
Sorry about the delay.
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