Hello,
in this sentence :
... ir al psicólogo no sería mala idea. (That thing about going to a psycologist wouldn't be a bad idea.)why isn't it : "... ir al psicólogo no sería una mala idea." ?
thank you !
Lo de que + [conjugated verb]
In Spanish, when something has been mentioned in a conversation, we refer to it afterwards with:
Lo de que + [sentence with a conjugated verb]
For example:
Imagine that someone said yesterday "María is going to live abroad", we would refer to this later like this:
If someone has mentioned "getting a new job", we could refer to this later on:
"Lo de que" can be followed by the indicative or subjunctive, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
For example:
Lo de que yo pago todo era una broma. (present indicative)
Lo de que yo pague todo era una broma. (present subjunctive)
That thing about me paying for everything was a joke.
Lo de + infinitive/noun/adverb
We can refer to a previous comment/fact in the same way with:
- (with infinitive)
- (with proper noun)
- (with noun)
- (with adverb)
Learn more about these related Spanish grammar topics
Examples and resources
Q&A Forum 4 questions, 9 answers
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola Lilou
Both would be correct, you can use it with or without the article. No change in meaning.
Saludos
Inma
Lilou asked:View original
(una) mala idea
Hello,
in this sentence :
... ir al psicólogo no sería mala idea. (That thing about going to a psycologist wouldn't be a bad idea.)why isn't it : "... ir al psicólogo no sería una mala idea." ?
thank you !
Don't have an account yet? Join today
AndrewKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Perdona, ________ antes fue una tontería.
With the above question, "lo de" was said to be the answer. However, there is a conjugated verb in the clause afterward, "fue". Why isn;t the correct answer "lo de que"? With a conjugated verb, the explanation says to use "lo de que".
Asked 1 year ago
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola Andrew,
In this sentence, "lo de" is linked to an adverb, "antes", not the rest of the sentence after. We have a similar example in the lesson with "Lo de ayer, ¿es verdad? (What happened yesterday, is it true?)
With "Lo de que..." we need a whole subordinate clause that is linked to that "lo de que". You will find two conjugated verbs, one for the subordinate and one for the main clause.
"Lo de que me caso con Cristina es broma." (That thing about me marrying Cristina is a joke.)
Here we are having two verbs, one linked to "lo de que" (me caso) and the main verb in the main clause "es".
However we could say pretty much the same thing with "Lo de" but see how the structure changes:
"Lo de mi boda con Cristina es broma." (That thing about marrying Cristina is a joke.[boda means weeding]). This only needs one verb, "es".
Is this a bit clearer?
Let us know
Inma
AndrewKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Yes, I understand it. Your excellent explanation is very clear and very much appreciated!
Andrew asked:View original
Perdona, ________ antes fue una tontería.
With the above question, "lo de" was said to be the answer. However, there is a conjugated verb in the clause afterward, "fue". Why isn;t the correct answer "lo de que"? With a conjugated verb, the explanation says to use "lo de que".
Don't have an account yet? Join today
GaryKwiziq community member
Lo de que María se va a vivir a Francia, ¿es verdad? Part 2
Why lo de que? Maria is a noun. Why isn't it lo de?
Asked 1 year ago
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola Gary,
If it was only the noun, "María", then you'd need "Lo de María" but we have here a whole sentence with a conjugated verb. It may be confusing to see this in the lesson as we say:
Lo de que + conjugated verb
So I will slightly change the text in the lesson accordingly saying that the conjugated verb can be preceded by its subject, to make it clearer.
I hope this helped,
Gracias y un saludo,
Inma
RobinKwiziq community member
It's because a subordinate clause is coming up - que often introduces such clauses. It's 'lo de' with a noun or infinitive, but 'lo de que' whan there's a whole clause coming up. Maria is just the subject of that clause.
GaryKwiziq community member
But then there is this: Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia..
This is a whole sentence with a verb so why isn't it, Lo de que la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia...?
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola Gary
Sorry we missed this other query. Here in this sentence:
"Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia.
we have "lo de" plus a noun (la prohibición). If we were using "lo de que...", as Robin mentioned previously, we would have a subordinate clause. See how a similiar sentence would work with "lo de que":
"Lo de que las autoridades hayan prohibido las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia."
You have here a whole clause after "que", and then after the comma you have the main verb "ha creado".
In the first sentence, "Lo de la prohibición de las corridas de toros, ha creado controversia." there is no subordinate clause. There is only one main verb.
"The ban on bullfighting (subject) has caused (erb) some controversy."
I hope this makes it clearer.
Sorry about the delay.
Saludos
Inma
Gary asked:View original
Lo de que María se va a vivir a Francia, ¿es verdad? Part 2
Why lo de que? Maria is a noun. Why isn't it lo de?
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Don't have an account yet? Join today
