One of the questions on the B2 quiz asks for several options to translate the phrase "After I've read the report I will give you my opinion." The only two correct answers it lists are "Después de que haya leido el informe te daré mi opinión" and "Después de que haber leido el informe...". I understand why both answers are correct, but I wonder why "Después de que he leido el informe..." isn't, since it's also indicative and both the indicative and subjunctive can be used for past tense?
Thanks!
Hola S. V.
Thank you for your question!
The difference here is not simply whether the action is in the past or the future, but whether the action is viewed as completed at the moment of speaking or as something that is still in the future.
In your example:
the reading of the report has not happened yet. It is a future action that must take place before the speaker gives their opinion, so después de que is followed by the subjunctive.
By contrast:
refers to an action that has already been completed from the speaker's point of view. It would therefore mean something like "After I have read the report" with the reading already accomplished, which doesn't fit the context of "I will give you my opinion".
The other accepted answer,
also expresses that the reading will be completed before giving the opinion, but it does so using the perfect infinitive (haber + participle) rather than a finite verb.
So, in this context, Después de que haya leído... and Después de haber leído... are the appropriate options, whereas Después de que he leído... does not match the intended meaning.
Hasta pronto
Silvia
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