Spanish language Q&A Forum

Thank you Silvia,

In "La vida de Eva (B1)" gapfill test we have:

"Eva siempre ha sido una persona que nunca toma decisiones por dinero o por conveniencia. Su familia la quiere mucho y, para ser sinceros, ha hecho muchos sacrificios ______ sus hijos."

The hint for the gap is:

"she has made many sacrifices for her children."

the accepted answer is "por"; "para" is marked wrong.

The explanation given for this is:

"Lesson: Using por (not para) to express the originating cause or reason"

Could you please help me to see

why "for" is interpreted here as indicating the "cause" and not the "recipient"?

Thank you Silvia,

You write that  "for" in 

"she has made many sacrifices for her children"

implies a cause / an originating reason.

If so, why  "for" in 

"she has made many books for her children"

does not imply a cause?

Also, is the following ungrammatical:

"Ha hecho muchos sacrificios para sus hijos."

On all the other sites that I have read, you conjugate the verb in the correct tense when using desde. Can you please clarify this for me? I read in the comments that the tendency is to use the present tense, but why do none of the other sites say this?

If the interrogative needs cuándo then: ¿Dice la pantalla  cuándo aterriza el avión?

But for a non-question: La pantalla no dice cuando aterriza el avión.

yet the Kwiziq answer is: La pantalla no dice cuándo aterriza el avión. 

HELP? por favor . . .

It seems to indicate that:

bien and mal go with estar

bueno and malo go with ser

but when I follow that as a "rule" I get it wrong. What am I missing please? What is the "reason" either goes with whatever?

consider: 

(1) she has made many sacrifices for her children

(2) she has made many books for her children

why

in (1) "for" --> por

in (2) "for" --> para

Your article says: "In most places El Pretérito Indefinido will be used with "nunca" and "siempre" and even with time expressions which have a connection to the present, such as: hoy, este mes, este año, esta noche, esta mañana, esta semana..."

On a quiz, I used the indefinido in a question with a "time expression which has a connection to the present" (i.e. "hoy") and got the question wrong-- it was corrected to the perfecto. 

Is there something wrong with what I did? Are the quizes looking for peninsular or latin american answers? 

It should be......how many people are there in Barcelona........I am English, this sounds more natural to me

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...