Spanish language Q&A Forum

For this lesson, would it be correct to say that you generally conjugate the verbs ending in "ar" to "aba" (e.g. hablar becomes hablaba) and that you conjugate verbs ending in "er" and "ir" to "ía" (e.g. soler becomes solía)?

The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.

Tom