"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

SandraB1Kwiziq community member

"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

Asked 10 months ago
AlanC1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
I think the answer is that these are different uses of "lo". In "lo imposible" it's acting as a neutral article ("the"), but in the second example it's an object pronoun ("it"). Object pronouns have to be placed before a conjugated verb. 
SandraB1Kwiziq community member
that's a nice crear explanation. Thank you!!
InmaKwiziq team member

Exactly as Alan says!

Gracias Alan,

Inma

"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

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