"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?
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SandraKwiziq community member
"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Conjugate hacer in the conditional tense in Spanish (El Condicional Simple)"
Asked 5 years ago
Alan Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
I think the answer is that these are different uses of "lo". In "lo imposible" it's acting as a neutral article ("the"), but in the second example it's an object pronoun ("it"). Object pronouns have to be placed before a conjugated verb.
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