In the test question about Pideselas.. The aswers the computer listed were:
1. Order them for them
2. Order them for her
3. Order them for him.
I feel #2 and #3 answers are wrong. Would you please check of that. I could be wrong myself. Thank you.
"Se" here is referring to "to/for him", "to/for her" or "to/for them". It is the indirect object pronoun that turns into "se" when le/les precedes a direct object pronoun lo/la/los/las. This is the case here with Píde-se-las.
There are three possible answers because that "se" could be referring to any of those three pronouns (le=to him, le=to her or les=to them).
If we give nouns to those pronouns, it'll be easier to see.
Let's take these sentences:
Order some beers for him - Pide cervezas para él.
Pide-le-las = Pídeselas
Order some beers for her - Pide cervezas para ella.
Order some beers for them - Pide cervezas para ellos/ellas.
Pide-les-las = Pídeselas
The three forms coincide as le/les turn into "se".
"Las" never changes as it is always referring to "cervezas" (las).
I hope this clarifies your doubt.
Thanks Inma. Explanantion is clear. If only I could use it in practice without getting confused in the process.
Soy nativa de España. Es pídeselas (a ellos) con tilde.
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