Accent placement 2

Question

HolaAnswer given was "compráoslos". Should it not be "cómpraoslos" ? Similar to "Prepáratelas" and "Cómpratelas" .

Answer

I think this has been answered before:https://spanish.kwiziq.com/questions/view/accentuacion-dudasIn short, no, because comprad has the accent on the second syllable, while compra has the accent on the first syllable.

Answer

Thanks AlanI now understand the reason.William

Answer

Hola William,
When we have a verb in the imperative with pronouns attached to it, the stress is still in the original stress from the verb conjugated without the pronouns. I mean, for example:
Prepáratelas:
prepara - te - las
The stress on the imperative prepara is on the second "a": pre - pa - ra. So when linked to the pronouns, the stress is still on that "a". The same would apply to compra - te - las.
With compráoslos, this is how it goes:
comprad: imperative (with the stress on the "a", com-prad)
os = pronoun
los = pronoun
In this case, the -d from the imperative for "vosotros" dissappears when having the pronoun "os" attached. But the intonation is still on that "a": com - pra - os - los.
I hope this clarified it.
Saludos
Inma

Answer

Thank you, all 3 of you.  Precisely what I was going to ask