Answer given was "compráoslos". Should it not be "cómpraoslos" ? Similar to "Prepáratelas" and "Cómpratelas" .
I think this has been answered before:
In short, no, because comprad has the accent on the second syllable, while compra has the accent on the first syllable.
I now understand the reason.
When we have a verb in the imperative with pronouns attached to it, the stress is still in the original stress from the verb conjugated without the pronouns. I mean, for example:
prepara - te - las
The stress on the imperative prepara is on the second "a": pre - pa - ra. So when linked to the pronouns, the stress is still on that "a". The same would apply to compra - te - las.
With compráoslos, this is how it goes:
comprad: imperative (with the stress on the "a", com-prad)
os = pronoun
los = pronoun
In this case, the -d from the imperative for "vosotros" dissappears when having the pronoun "os" attached. But the intonation is still on that "a": com - pra - os - los.
I hope this clarified it.
Thank you, all 3 of you. Precisely what I was going to ask
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