It's a very interesting post, even more so to see what the Kwiziq team have to say.

One thing, I'm not a native speaker but I'd suggest that if it should be tener instead of haber I think it would have to be tener que + infinitive. I believe haber de is a more formal equivalent of that

Saludos

Is there a need to make your point so disrespectfully? 

Kwiziq is a marvellous resource staffed by human beings. 

Perhaps you should take your anger elsewhere. Good luck with it.

C - My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) says that "haber de …" is an acceptable alternative for "tener que ..." (just as Graeme implies). The book adds that "haber de …" tends to be associated with mild obligation or future certainty, and that its usage is mainly literary - (although it is often heard in Catalonia, even in conversations [in Castilian] - because it follows a similar construction in Catalan). In Mexico, "haber de …" expresses probability or supposition.

There are apparently a number of subtle differences between the varieties of Spanish spoken in various parts of the world: (in fact, even between northern and southern Spain). It is perhaps similar to comparing the English spoken in the USA with that heard in British Commonwealth countries: occasionally I react with horror when reading something published in America ! - but I then remind myself that it is perfectly correct according to the syntax, spelling and semantics prevailing on the other side of the Atlantic… There are even words and expressions used in Scotland, South Africa and maybe Australia which would be marked "wrong" in an English High School essay.

I apologize for the tone of my message. I was feeling particularly cranky that day, for unrelated reasons, and the disappointment I felt when I read this simply made me go a bit overboard. It was totally uncalled for. Sorry if I offended or bothered the author.

I would still point out that it does not simply sound artificial, it sounds wrong. Some of the connectors and verbal tenses used are nothing short of puzzling, so if the reason the text sounds a bit stilted is that the author was doing their best to show how to use those words then one might argue that the author managed neither to write a native-sounding text nor show the correct use of those words, because that's not where native speakers use them.

On the topic of punctuation, just to give an example: it should be "...serán, como siempre, producciones independientes...", the first comma is missing. And then in other places there are commas where they shouldn't be...

Again, I don't mean to offend, but this text would have any highschool Spanish teacher shaking their head. That is, imho, not what you want to read if you are at a C1 level.

Shui and Inma - You can rest assured that the majority of members of this site really appreciate its contents; in addition I must praise the hard work and attention which you devote to answering a never-ending stream of questions.

In English, choosing what tense to use is sometimes a matter of taste; i.e., one has to accept that the "rules" often presented in books, are not always 100% rigid.

So I can see how a person who is not prepared to be flexible, could (if they really wanted to criticise) go through the Spanish passage concerned, arguing that some of the tenses are inconsistent with others in the same paragraph. For example, "¿Cuál era el nombre de la calle famosa para tapas?": I can understand how some people would prefer "¿Cuál *es* el nombre ...?" - but at the same time (as a foreigner) I think I can appreciate how the narrator could simply be looking back in the past at her memories of that particular street.

Also - the use of the Perfect ["Antepresente"] does seem to vary according to where the speaker comes from: [Maybe 'C' does not like your: "Con lo cual he pensado..."] > My grammar book [Butt and Benjamin] remarks that this tense is much less common in parts of northern Spain and in certain Latin American countries.

Please do not be upset by the criticism of just one person. Keep up the good work!