why is it 'vea' in second example?

Question

2nd example above is  'Cuanto menos te vea, mejor'Why subjunctive?

Accepted Answer

Hola Thea
In this sentence we are talking about something hypothetical:

Cuanto menos te vea, mejor. 
The less I see you, the better.

This is what triggers the subjunctive. So here the speaker is saying "the less I see you [from now on, in the future], the better"
However, we can make a similar sentence with the indicative exactly with the same structure but indicating something that actually happens (not hypothetical):

Cuanto menos lo veo, más ganas tengo de abrazarlo.
The less I see him, the more I feel like hugging him.

Here, her seeing him less is a fact, not a future/hypothetical idea.
I hope this clarified it.
Saludos
Inma