why is it 'vea' in second example?

TheaC1Kwiziq community member

why is it 'vea' in second example?

2nd example above is  'Cuanto menos te vea, mejor'

Why subjunctive?

Asked 2 weeks ago
InmaKwiziq team memberCorrect answer

Hola Thea

In this sentence we are talking about something hypothetical:

Cuanto menos te vea, mejor. 

The less I see you, the better.

This is what triggers the subjunctive. So here the speaker is saying "the less I see you [from now on, in the future], the better"

However, we can make a similar sentence with the indicative exactly with the same structure but indicating something that actually happens (not hypothetical):

Cuanto menos lo veo, más ganas tengo de abrazarlo.

The less I see him, the more I feel like hugging him.

Here, her seeing him less is a fact, not a future/hypothetical idea.

I hope this clarified it.

Saludos

Inma

 

why is it 'vea' in second example?

2nd example above is  'Cuanto menos te vea, mejor'

Why subjunctive?

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