Why does a sentence that already has an indirect object have an indirect object pronoun?

ZhangA1Kwiziq community member

Why does a sentence that already has an indirect object have an indirect object pronoun?

El padre le da la receta a la señorita. Senorita was the indirect object noun, why add to “le” in front of the da?And,:Qué le hace el médico al enfermo? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

And, :Le receta el médico al enfermo unas pastillas? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

Asked 1 year ago
MarshaC1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor Correct answer
JannA0Kwiziq community member

Spanish routinely uses indirect object pronouns next to the verb whether or not the indirect object is mentioned elsewhere in the sentence: Dame la llave./ Dame la llave a mí. Dale la llave./ Dale la llave a Elena. Danos la llave. Danos la llave a nosotros. Since the referents of me, te, nos and os don't need to be clarified, sentences like Dame la llava a mí are fairly unusual and are interpreted as being more emphatic than the sentences that use just the with-verb (unstressed) pronouns me, te, etc.. In the case of third person pronouns le and les, the person who is the indirect object often has to be specified: "Dale la llave a Roberto, no al niño." "Llévale el café al señor. La señora no quiere nada." But after the IO has been identified, "el señor" is ordinarily dropped. "También llévale azucar y bastante leche."

Why does a sentence that already has an indirect object have an indirect object pronoun?

El padre le da la receta a la señorita. Senorita was the indirect object noun, why add to “le” in front of the da?And,:Qué le hace el médico al enfermo? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

And, :Le receta el médico al enfermo unas pastillas? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

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