The second paragraph was a copy/paste from the mini quiz.  Sorry it came out so strange when saving the question/statement about the lesson.  

Inma.  I understand your response perfectly.  I haven't seen the explanation in any of the lessons that the imperative and subjunctive forms can be the same.  I think the distinction between the usage as imperative and subjunctive could be made clearer.

Hmmm.....

1. The imperative mood is used to tell someone to do something in a direct manner. More simply put, sentences in the imperative mood are commands.

2. The subjunctive (el subjuntivo} is one of the three moods in Spanish, the other two being the indicative and the imperative. The subjunctive is used to express desires, doubts, the unknown, the abstract, and emotions. 

These are 2 explanations from spanishdict.com. #1 is about the use of the Imperative (Command). #2 is about the use of the subjunctive.  

 I feel that some of the examples you are using in the subjunctive, though conjugated the same, are not subjunctive, but rather, imperative ("used to tell someone to do something in a direct manner"). To me,  I feel that these are two different, distinct concepts in grammar. And it appears, to me, that spanishdict.com explains this.  

Just trying to learn. Please take no offense. 

Hola,

This topic confuses the heck out of me!

Can you please clarify for me what is meant by your response:

"Any negative command for informal or formal you, or any other pronoun actually, will always be conjugated in the present subjunctive form. Some people call it "negative imperative" but that results in the conjugation of the present subjunctive. "

Could  you clarify this.  Does that mean that the "negative imperative" is really the subjunctive? or that it is "conjugated" in the same manner as the subjunctive? or am I missing the boat totally?

Thank you for your help.  I've been having a lot of trouble with this and have been trying to sort it out for weeks, when I happened upon this topic here.

Nicole