Hello. I wonder why we used the preterito perfecto de sujuntivo in this sentence, instead of the presente de sujuntivo. Aside from the given hint to use the said verb, can you explain why? Thank you.
Freeform Writing Exercise B2
The translated is "has had" not has, hence the pretérito perfecto subjuntivo.
Hola Jenk, yes, as Marsha said, we're using the perfect tense to imply the completed action of "having received them" instead of the present "although she receives...", therefore you need the perfect tense.
Does it make sense?
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