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2 questions • 8,149 answers • 790,997 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
2 questions • 8,149 answers • 790,997 learners
The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below.
1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not.
1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
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