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En este frase, no entiendo por que es "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le atendería" y no "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le habria atendido". No entiendo por que la tradución en ingles es I would have served you y no I would serve you.... Help!
¿Cuántos euros te quedan en la cartera? -Me quedan ochenta.
How many euros do you have left in your purse? -I have eighty left.
The above is using preterite translated to present perfect. This is a subject I have some trouble understanding. Wondering if quedar is one of those examples of language that doesn't translate exactly and have to accept it as an expression used and not over think it?
In "Ella era modelo," why is this not "
"Ella era modela"? Is model a masculine word regardless of who is the model?
Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.I was waiting for you until I got bored and left.
Twice now I have entered 'estaba' but the correct answer is shown to be 'estuve'. I thought that when an action is either interrupted or where there is no specific beginning or end, it's the imperfect. Can you please clarify? Thank you.
Usually the conditional tense adds "would" to the verb. E.g. comería, would eat; habría, would have; vendría, would come, etc. But "should" is not the same as "would". It implies a duty or obligation, whereas "would" does not.
So debería etc. seems to be an exception because it means "should" not "would"!
All the rent includes the bills.
No leiste ningún libro de italiano.
For "any Italian books" why is this not "nigunos libros italianos"?