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Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.
Hello, could you make a lessn for olvidar and olvidarse please ? It's quite difficult for me to know when I must say olvidar and when I must say olvidarse.
Thank you very much !
It seems like two of the examples use the imperfect to express an intended action.
¿Ibais a Ibiza para vuestra luna de miel?
Iban de vacaciones a una isla bonita.
In English we would say this as "Were you going to go..." and "They were going to go..." We don't know if these actions were ever completed or not, so it makes sense to use the imperfect tense.
Is this a valid interpretation and use of the imperfect tense? Thanks.
Could you tell me why it is subjuntivo that follows the expression:
"No dudo de que..."?
The full extract is:
"Antes de dormir pásabamos un buen rato por el taller del Belga, un anciano pavoroso que apareció en Aracataca después de la primers guerra mundial, y no dudo de que fuera belga por el recuerdo que tengo de sus acento aturdido y sus nostalgias de navegante" ("VIVIR PARA CONTARLA" by Gabriel García Márquez)
Doesn't "No dudo de que..." imply certainty?
This seems like a completed action, or at least a completed period of time:
Él no veía nada antes de la operación.
Why do we use the imperfect here?
In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.
Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?
Thanks in advance for your explanation.
In another unrelated lesson, a quiz sentence states, 'No me queda mucho dinero pero tengo para dos cervezas más.' Where does this sentence fit in the various meanings of quedar, as explained in this lesson?
Is there a reason why "cuento" cannot be used for "story."
My translator says that "cuento" is used for a fictional tale and "historia" is used for a narrative account. I always thought that they were more or less interchangeable.